greyhounds wrote: Unless it is done well, any government involvement in setting railroad freight rates will cause great harm.
Unless it is done well, any government involvement in setting railroad freight rates will cause great harm.
Odd that railroads were the primary advocates of regulation according Gabriel Kolko, primarily because competition was forcing them to reduce rates to unsupportable levels. What happened?
Regulation stopped a free-fall in rates.
Railroads advocated deregulation because they thought it would allow them to raise rates. What happened?
A free-fall in rates.
Hmmm.
What saved the railroads?
The entirely unrelated ability to lay off or fire employees as a result of crew agreements first negotiated as a result of a bankruptcy proceeding at Milwaukee Road.
What did that have to do with rates?
Nothing.
The ability to freely set rates hurt railroads, the ability to fire employees helped railroads. Regulation affected rates, other factors affected crew laws. The Staggers Act had no effect on crew agreements.
Market theory proposes that monopoly or captive pricing creates "great harm." It is the fundamental tenet of Capitalism and, incidentally and oddly enough, of the Staggers Act.
Who was/is right?
solzrules wrote: I hardly think that re-regulation of the railroads is going to solve anything.
I hardly think that re-regulation of the railroads is going to solve anything.
solzrules wrote: I don't know what everyone is all fired up about. The article mentions how railroads have benefited from the Staggers Act and de-regulation in 1981. Yes, some people may not like the market based pricing they are paying, but an open and free market is essential to our economy and our way of life. Introducing competition (DME) is a good way to maintain a healthy industry that regulates itself. It is kind of hard for a monopolistic railroad to charge exorbitant prices if another railroad can still make a profit with lower rates. Perhaps captive shippers should consider location if they don't want to be served by only one railroad. I hardly think that re-regulation of the railroads is going to solve anything. We have one of the greatest rail systems in the world, in large part because it is a private system that HAS to be competitive to survive. A heavily regulated semi-public system is prone to failure and mis-management. Why go back to the dark ages?
I don't know what everyone is all fired up about. The article mentions how railroads have benefited from the Staggers Act and de-regulation in 1981. Yes, some people may not like the market based pricing they are paying, but an open and free market is essential to our economy and our way of life. Introducing competition (DME) is a good way to maintain a healthy industry that regulates itself. It is kind of hard for a monopolistic railroad to charge exorbitant prices if another railroad can still make a profit with lower rates. Perhaps captive shippers should consider location if they don't want to be served by only one railroad.
I hardly think that re-regulation of the railroads is going to solve anything. We have one of the greatest rail systems in the world, in large part because it is a private system that HAS to be competitive to survive. A heavily regulated semi-public system is prone to failure and mis-management. Why go back to the dark ages?
You're right. Why go back to the dark ages when we have the option of moving forward to the light? Separate infrastructure from transporter operations, classify the infrastructure portion for what it is - aka, a de facto utility - and govern it like we do all such utilities, then let the transporters run free relative to their multimodal brethern aka trucks, barges, etc.
The status quo will not remain, so it's one way or the other. Take your pick.
tiskilwa wrote: solzrules wrote: I hardly think that re-regulation of the railroads is going to solve anything. Regulation had a leveling effect: It helped weak carriers survive; it prevented strong carriers from getting stronger. The result was that none were prosperous.When the entire US rail system was in danger of collapsing under its own weight in the 1970's, the options were (1) make the system purely government-owned, or (2) get the government completely out.The powers that be opted for dereg, and so today we have a hand-full of carriers that are prosperous. Things turned out okay. Maybe they turned out great. There is no perfect solution. Perhaps the aggrieved shippers could ask for mitigation from the government. Wouldn't be the first time farmers asked for price support from the government.
How many farmers received massive land grants? How many farmers get anti-trust exemption? How many farmers were allowed to expand via Eminent Domain?
futuremodal wrote: tiskilwa wrote: solzrules wrote: I hardly think that re-regulation of the railroads is going to solve anything. Regulation had a leveling effect: It helped weak carriers survive; it prevented strong carriers from getting stronger. The result was that none were prosperous.When the entire US rail system was in danger of collapsing under its own weight in the 1970's, the options were (1) make the system purely government-owned, or (2) get the government completely out.The powers that be opted for dereg, and so today we have a hand-full of carriers that are prosperous. Things turned out okay. Maybe they turned out great. There is no perfect solution. Perhaps the aggrieved shippers could ask for mitigation from the government. Wouldn't be the first time farmers asked for price support from the government. How many farmers received massive land grants? How many farmers get anti-trust exemption? How many farmers were allowed to expand via Eminent Domain?
To mention one, the Oklahoma Land Rush of 1889.
http://www.library.cornell.edu/Reps/DOCS/landrush.htm
MichaelSol wrote: Odd that railroads were the primary advocates of regulation according Gabriel Kolko, primarily because competition was forcing them to reduce rates to unsupportable levels. What happened? Regulation stopped a free-fall in rates. Railroads advocated deregulation because they thought it would allow them to raise rates. What happened? A free-fall in rates. Hmmm. What saved the railroads? The entirely unrelated ability to lay off or fire employees as a result of crew agreements first negotiated as a result of a bankruptcy proceeding at Milwaukee Road. What did that have to do with rates? Nothing. The ability to freely set rates hurt railroads, the ability to fire employees helped railroads. Regulation affected rates, other factors affected crew laws. The Staggers Act had no effect on crew laws.
The ability to freely set rates hurt railroads, the ability to fire employees helped railroads. Regulation affected rates, other factors affected crew laws. The Staggers Act had no effect on crew laws.
But today RR's like the BNSF are able to charge what the market will bear. This doesn't mean that they are charging cost plus overhead plus profit, but rather they are charging the most they can and still retain the business. That is an ideal position to be in REGARDLESS of what business you are in. That's how companies make real money. What is even more interesting is that RR's charge these prices and yet people are still clamoring for the service of the RR. RR's are also able to recoup costs resulting from fluctuations in the fuel market - something that they just ate before 1981.
In other words I think market pricing has only been good for the rail industry, even though there have been some painful decades of abandonment. Today, for the most part, if a Class 1 rail line exists it is because it is a profitable venture. It isn't being propped up by artificial rates or the political considerations. There are very few RR's in the rest of the world that can claim this.
As for crew laws and the ability to hire and fire, don't you think that is a result of collective bargaining changes over the last 20 years? I don't know that the RR's survived because they were able to hire and fire people with more ease. I think it is because they are making money and people are willing to invest in them.
Market theory proposes that monopoly or captive pricing creates "great harm." It is the fundamental tenet of Capitalism and, incidentally and oddly enough, of the Staggers Act. Who was/is right?
Seems to me that many settlers of our western states did indeed receive massive land grants from the Federal and in some cases (California) state land grants to settle and cultivate vast lands. How would all the large cattle ranches have started were it not for government opening up the west?!? And then there are the more modern price supports and out right grants which had their roots in FDR's New Deal. How many railroads have a free government provided extension service to provide assistance in running their business and providing free tax subsidized research to improve their yields and thus revenues? How may railroads receive special tax breaks on their property? How many railroads receive relief from a whole panoply of laws designed to protect workers including safety regulation (when was the last time you saw a farm tractor with working tail lights or even a license plate??), even exemption from child labor laws???
Your argument is, as usual, a loser FM....
LOL...
LC
futuremodal wrote: How many farmers received land grants?
How many? Literally thousands of farmers did. Around here, they called it homesteading. What did they call it there?
Thanks to Chris / CopCarSS for my avatar.
futuremodal wrote: How many farmers received massive land grants?
How many farmers received massive land grants?
Wasn't massive, but one of my ancestors did. In 1851. In south Georgia. I imagine most of his neighbors did, too.
Murphy Siding wrote: My understanding, from what my ancestors told me, was that my great-great whoevers, had to pay a nominal fee to enroll in the program, then "prove up" to get title of the land. I seriously doubt any of my Norweigan or Irish ancestors had 2 nickles to rub together, so I can't believe they paid very much.
Wow a WHOLE $1.25 an acre. How did they ever come up with so much money?
In return for the land grants, railroads provided the US Government vastly reduced rates for the movements of passengers and freight.
I just read the GAO report (all 31 pages) and found it very interesting. I agree with Ken...they DONT know what to do with this issue. After laying out the entire process they finally admit that there needs to be a balance between captive shippers and revenue adequacy for the RR's.
The entire R/VC (180%) seems somewhat flawed, but it is the current law.
The real problem is not the railroad's pricing, but the failure of the system to adequately address any disagreements. I find the method to settle, involving an average 3.3 years and $3million per case to be outrageous. If I were a pricing manager of a railroad it would be full throttle on the pricing until further notice. Sorta like driving 65mph in a 55mph zone, just dont get caught.
Finally, the system no doubt needs to be fine tuned, ok probably overhauled...but any adjustments would jack the 180% upwards in my opinion.
ed
MP173 wrote:In return for the land grants, railroads provided the US Government vastly reduced rates for the movements of passengers and freight.
"TomDiehl""Murphy Siding" My understanding, from what my ancestors told me, was that my great-great whoevers, had to pay a nominal fee to enroll in the program, then "prove up" to get title of the land. I seriously doubt any of my Norweigan or Irish ancestors had 2 nickles to rub together, so I can't believe they paid very much. Wow a WHOLE $1.25 an acre. How did they ever come up with so much money?
"Murphy Siding" My understanding, from what my ancestors told me, was that my great-great whoevers, had to pay a nominal fee to enroll in the program, then "prove up" to get title of the land. I seriously doubt any of my Norweigan or Irish ancestors had 2 nickles to rub together, so I can't believe they paid very much.
MichaelSol wrote: MP173 wrote: In return for the land grants, railroads provided the US Government vastly reduced rates for the movements of passengers and freight. Is that meaningful in the larger context of railroading? The US Government was not a producer, and didn't actually consume much in that era. The US Government was pretty small potato(e)s.
MP173 wrote: In return for the land grants, railroads provided the US Government vastly reduced rates for the movements of passengers and freight.
The so called land grant rates lasted untill the late 1940s. In WW II the federal government was not a small potato rather they were the railroads largest customer.
MichaelSol wrote: Murphy Siding wrote: My understanding, from what my ancestors told me, was that my great-great whoevers, had to pay a nominal fee to enroll in the program, then "prove up" to get title of the land. I seriously doubt any of my Norweigan or Irish ancestors had 2 nickles to rub together, so I can't believe they paid very much.If they worked hard, and endured what is described in Willa Cather's "O Pioneers" or Rolvaag's "Giants in the Earth," they paid a lot.
They paid a lot more on the High Plains when the rain stopped.
That's quite true, but it was a lot better than where they came from.
MP173 wrote: The real problem is not the railroad's pricing, but the failure of the system to adequately address any disagreements. I find the method to settle, involving an average 3.3 years and $3million per case to be outrageous. If I were a pricing manager of a railroad it would be full throttle on the pricing until further notice. Sorta like driving 65mph in a 55mph zone, just dont get caught.
There is a lot of truth in what you say about a price setting in cases with captive shippers but as one of my captive shipper from TX once told me, "you've got me by the bxxxs but I'm in a perfect position to pxxx on you". He did just that when he arranged with another railroad to build into his facility by the time the contract was up for renewal.
bobwilcox wrote: MichaelSol wrote: MP173 wrote: In return for the land grants, railroads provided the US Government vastly reduced rates for the movements of passengers and freight. Is that meaningful in the larger context of railroading? The US Government was not a producer, and didn't actually consume much in that era. The US Government was pretty small potato(e)s. The so called land grant rates lasted untill the late 1940s. In WW II the federal government was not a small potato rather they were the railroads largest customer.
Either those rates were profitable in their own right, or other shippers were really paying through their collective nose(s).
TomDiehl wrote: Murphy Siding wrote: My understanding, from what my ancestors told me, was that my great-great whoevers, had to pay a nominal fee to enroll in the program, then "prove up" to get title of the land. I seriously doubt any of my Norweigan or Irish ancestors had 2 nickles to rub together, so I can't believe they paid very much. Wow a WHOLE $1.25 an acre. How did they ever come up with so much money?
Was it possible for a homesteader to get a loan for the land using the land as collateral?
Murphy Siding wrote: How many? Literally thousands of farmers did. Around here, they called it homesteading. What did they call it there?
JOdom wrote: Wasn't massive, but one of my ancestors did. In 1851. In south Georgia. I imagine most of his neighbors did, too.
Limitedclear wrote: Seems to me that many settlers of our western states did indeed receive massive land grants from the Federal and in some cases (California) state land grants to settle and cultivate vast lands.
Seems to me that many settlers of our western states did indeed receive massive land grants from the Federal and in some cases (California) state land grants to settle and cultivate vast lands.
Ya know, it's so elementary - you just bait the hook, cast your line, and wait patiently.
First time I've ever caught three at once, though!
Homestead lands and railroad land grants were two different things. With homesteading, the farmer had to make his living off that land, a measley 160 acres, and if he failed (as many did), the land went up for auction by the revenuers.
The land was the farmer's sole source of income for the most part. No one in their right mind would call it a "land grant" because it wasn't.
With the railroad land grants, the land itself was mainly used to provide collateral for construction bonds The rest was kept as future collateral, basically banked right up until just recently by most of the railroad companies. The land itself was not meant to provide a sole source of revenue for the railroads, rather incentive for construction of the lines themselves. Little if any of the railroad land grants were ever reaquired by the feds via seizure and auction.
Hmmmmm, 160 acres is some kind of moral equivalent to the millions of acres of railroad land grants per company?
Nice try, rookies.
futuremodal wrote: futuremodal wrote: How many farmers received land grants? Murphy Siding wrote: How many? Literally thousands of farmers did. Around here, they called it homesteading. What did they call it there? JOdom wrote: Wasn't massive, but one of my ancestors did. In 1851. In south Georgia. I imagine most of his neighbors did, too. Limitedclear wrote: Seems to me that many settlers of our western states did indeed receive massive land grants from the Federal and in some cases (California) state land grants to settle and cultivate vast lands. Ya know, it's so elementary - you just bait the hook, cast your line, and wait patiently. First time I've ever caught three at once, though! Homestead lands and railroad land grants were two different things. With homesteading, the farmer had to make his living off that land, a measley 160 acres, and if he failed (as many did), the land went up for auction by the revenuers. The land was the farmer's sole source of income for the most part. No one in their right mind would call it a "land grant" because it wasn't. With the railroad land grants, the land itself was mainly used to provide collateral for construction bonds The rest was kept as future collateral, basically banked right up until just recently by most of the railroad companies. The land itself was not meant to provide a sole source of revenue for the railroads, rather incentive for construction of the lines themselves. Little if any of the railroad land grants were ever reaquired by the feds via seizure and auction. Hmmmmm, 160 acres is some kind of moral equivalent to the millions of acres of railroad land grants per company? Nice try, rookies.
HEH HEH HEH HEH
ZING!
MichaelSol wrote:"TomDiehl" "Murphy Siding" My understanding, from what my ancestors told me, was that my great-great whoevers, had to pay a nominal fee to enroll in the program, then "prove up" to get title of the land. I seriously doubt any of my Norweigan or Irish ancestors had 2 nickles to rub together, so I can't believe they paid very much. Wow a WHOLE $1.25 an acre. How did they ever come up with so much money? Would it make a difference if the average household income in America was $400 a year, and the average farm income less than half of that?
"TomDiehl" "Murphy Siding" My understanding, from what my ancestors told me, was that my great-great whoevers, had to pay a nominal fee to enroll in the program, then "prove up" to get title of the land. I seriously doubt any of my Norweigan or Irish ancestors had 2 nickles to rub together, so I can't believe they paid very much. Wow a WHOLE $1.25 an acre. How did they ever come up with so much money?
The homesteaders paid a nominal fee for the land then had to develop the land into a farm or ranch. The railroads had to spend investor's money to develop a transportaion system to serve these lands.
The point is "what's the difference?" The government got the land developed. Dave likes to shoot his mouth off that railroads got government welfare, then made the mistake of asking "who else?" He got a deluge of answers, and has no reply to cover his foot-in-mouth statement.
Potato/pottotto. The land my Irish ancestors homesteaded, combined with the adjacent land they lease under long term grazing rights, is an area 1 mile by 7 miles. While perhaps not the *moral equivilent*, one could argue it may be the *reletive equivilent*. Seven square miles of the American dream was to one immigrant family what "millions of acres of railroad land grants" was to a railroad. I would venture to guess, that you live on land that your ancestors homesteaded-no?
Hmmm, lets see.
US Mail and troop trains were pretty significant reductions for the government.
Dave you seem to be placing a present valuation on speculative actions after the fact. Sure, it worked out well for the railroads. But, shouldnt it have worked out well in order for it to be a fair deal? All in all, I would venture to say it was fair for both sides (rails and government). And speaking of present value on speculative actions, that land purchased at $1 per acre sure seems like a pretty good deal right now too.
Bob, you said it about your customer in Texas. Sometimes you win a battle only to lose later on.
I deal with pricing on a daily basis by establishing my own selling price (offer to sell). Each and every situation is different. My personal view is to maximize profit while being able to justify it. That is where "value added" comes into play. If you have nothing to add and it becomes $$$ only you lose. Either you dont gain the sale or it is so riduculously priced there is nothing in it.
I dont have a lot of sympathy for the large shippers. I get cut to pieces on a large Fortune 50 company and will lose business for the amount of $1. No problem tho, he is simply doing his job. My turn will come.
The same shippers that scream and yell "captive" will have no mercy when they are in a commanding position.
Moral of the story is if you are buying have several options. If you are selling eliminate as many options as possible.
And to you Dave, I'll say "lame try." The government wasn't in a financial position to build the railroads at that point in time. If they had, maybe you'd see how well your "open access" fantasy would work with the rail lines in as bad a shape as the interstate highway system.
The companies had to build the transportation system into a wilderness. Otherwise, those farmers and ranchers would be hauling thier products to market in covered wagons. The land wouldn't even be worth the $1.25 an acre until the government could afford to build some type of system for transport.
If the land granted to the railroads wasn't supposed to be a source of income for the railroads, exactly what was the incentive the railroads received from the grants besides what was needed for right of way?
And what is your source for the statement "basically banked right up until just recently by most of the railroad companies." How much? How recent?
And are you also trying to tell us that EVERY railroad that received land grants was a financial success?
TomDiehl wrote: MichaelSol wrote:"TomDiehl" "Murphy Siding" My understanding, from what my ancestors told me, was that my great-great whoevers, had to pay a nominal fee to enroll in the program, then "prove up" to get title of the land. I seriously doubt any of my Norweigan or Irish ancestors had 2 nickles to rub together, so I can't believe they paid very much. Wow a WHOLE $1.25 an acre. How did they ever come up with so much money? Would it make a difference if the average household income in America was $400 a year, and the average farm income less than half of that? The homesteaders paid a nominal fee for the land then had to develop the land into a farm or ranch. The railroads had to spend investor's money to develop a transportaion system to serve these lands. The point is "what's the difference?"
The point is "what's the difference?"
Well, $1.25 an acre -- $200 for a farm -- compared to annual income of around $200 per year with little income in excess of necessities is a pretty big deal compared to wealthy speculators building speculative railroads where they "had to spend" investor's money -- i.e. bilk both the investors and the government.
"What's the difference?"
The Homesteaders were honest and paid for their land.
Railroads by and large were not, and got free land.
TomDiehl wrote: The companies had to build the transportation system into a wilderness. Otherwise, those farmers and ranchers would be hauling thier products to market in covered wagons. The land wouldn't even be worth the $1.25 an acre until the government could afford to build some type of system for transport.
How on earth do you know what the land was worth without a railroad?
The U.S. Government had settled on $1.25 per acre in 1800. Long before railroads existed.
Are you now arguing that only railroads made land worth anything?
Further, most railroads were private binding the East, Midwest, and South. They didn't need land grants, and they exploited lands that had already been long before sold by the government -- the government didn't need railroads to charge $1.25 an acre.
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