QUOTE: Originally posted by rick bonfiglio now i can see why both kids had to go to the principals office. what a convoluted and confusing way to point out what the railroads and farmers have been doing to each other for the last 150 years (and don't criticize my math). when it's all said and done, the farmers will still suffer, and the railroad will get smaller due to public resentment. this is an old story, and i can't believe i wasted the time to read all five pages. -rrick
QUOTE: Originally posted by futuremodal QUOTE: Originally posted by rick bonfiglio now i can see why both kids had to go to the principals office. what a convoluted and confusing way to point out what the railroads and farmers have been doing to each other for the last 150 years (and don't criticize my math). when it's all said and done, the farmers will still suffer, and the railroad will get smaller due to public resentment. this is an old story, and i can't believe i wasted the time to read all five pages. -rrick What you're missing is that until Staggers, rail rates were regulated to reflect mileage based hauls, and frankly there were more railroads to do business with. The rate differential between Montana grain shipments and Nebraska grain shipments with the same destination and same relative mileage was for all intents and purposes indistinguishable. Since Staggers, you get to the point where the captive shippers like Montana are paying double the rates of the non-captive shippers like Nebraska. So it's not an analysis of the last 150 years of acrimony between farmers and the multitude of railroads, it's the focus on the last 25 years of acrimony between suddenly captive rail shippers and the immense railroad oligarchy. It's a situation that needs to be rectified before we lose our ag and industrial base to foreign producers.
QUOTE: Originally posted by greyhounds Ed, He's probably not gonna' like your math. Ken
QUOTE: Originally posted by MP173 2. As of 2003 BNSF engaged in "inverse pricing". I must assume that since the term "as recently as 2003..." that the inverse pricing is not a current issue, nor was it in 2004.
QUOTE: Originally posted by MP173 If, as you say, the Montana wheat is superior to all other wheat, it should be commanding a premium on the market, even as a commodity.
QUOTE: Originally posted by greyhounds QUOTE: Originally posted by futuremodal What you're missing is that until Staggers, rail rates were regulated to reflect mileage based hauls, and frankly there were more railroads to do business with. No they weren't. Prior to Staggers, we charged less to move a load from New Orleans to Chicago than we did to move a load from Chicago to New Orleans. The miles are obviously the same. Mileage is only one small factor in rail costs.
QUOTE: Originally posted by futuremodal What you're missing is that until Staggers, rail rates were regulated to reflect mileage based hauls, and frankly there were more railroads to do business with.
QUOTE: Originally posted by MichaelSol Regulated tariffs show an approximately 93% or greater correlation with mileage through linear regression analysis. For a statistician, that's not a "small" factor but very close to a sole determining factor. Under deregulation, competitive rates are approximately 55-75% correlated with mileage, and non-competitive rates to captive shippers can correlate as high as 97% with mileage. Best regards, Michael Sol
QUOTE: Originally posted by Limitedclear QUOTE: Originally posted by futuremodal QUOTE: Originally posted by rick bonfiglio now i can see why both kids had to go to the principals office. what a convoluted and confusing way to point out what the railroads and farmers have been doing to each other for the last 150 years (and don't criticize my math). when it's all said and done, the farmers will still suffer, and the railroad will get smaller due to public resentment. this is an old story, and i can't believe i wasted the time to read all five pages. -rrick What you're missing is that until Staggers, rail rates were regulated to reflect mileage based hauls, and frankly there were more railroads to do business with. The rate differential between Montana grain shipments and Nebraska grain shipments with the same destination and same relative mileage was for all intents and purposes indistinguishable. Since Staggers, you get to the point where the captive shippers like Montana are paying double the rates of the non-captive shippers like Nebraska. So it's not an analysis of the last 150 years of acrimony between farmers and the multitude of railroads, it's the focus on the last 25 years of acrimony between suddenly captive rail shippers and the immense railroad oligarchy. It's a situation that needs to be rectified before we lose our ag and industrial base to foreign producers. Oh, boy, here we go again... I thought I was watching the ad for "Chicken Little" again... But, no, it's just FM with his usual, "the sky is falling" approach to railroads... Of course, in the pre-Staggers world many of the granger roads were nearly or really bankrupt. Look at the finances of the CRIP, MILW or CNW and you'll find that all were having a tough go of it. Also, the dynamics of the grain markets have changed quite a bit over the years with a large shift to western ports for exports rather than domestic use or shipments from the Gulf Ports via the river systems. Last time I checked Montana was pretty challenged in terms of water transport to any deepwater port. LC
QUOTE: Originally posted by greyhounds The existance of a tariff rate, in itself, means nothing. If the freight wasn't moving on that rate, it's just a piece of paper. You'd have to do your correlation on rates that actually moved business, and 25 years after the fact, I'd be supprised if you can develop that data.
QUOTE: Originally posted by MichaelSol QUOTE: Originally posted by greyhounds The existance of a tariff rate, in itself, means nothing. If the freight wasn't moving on that rate, it's just a piece of paper. You'd have to do your correlation on rates that actually moved business, and 25 years after the fact, I'd be supprised if you can develop that data. In this instance, the data was developed in March of 1979 in preparation for ICC Hearings and most of the data for that was provided by Glenn Reynolds, Milwaukee Road's Director of Pricing. Best regards, Michael Sol
QUOTE: Originally posted by greyhounds Which regulated tariffs? If you're going to cite a tariff, then name the tariff.
QUOTE: Originally posted by greyhounds I know we took mileage into consideration, but it was part of a mix and it didn't govern our decisions. And we charged less to move freight north than we did south because the demand for northbound freight was less than the demand for southbound freight. Even if the miles were the same, we charged different rates.
QUOTE: Originally posted by MichaelSol QUOTE: Originally posted by greyhounds I know we took mileage into consideration, but it was part of a mix and it didn't govern our decisions. And we charged less to move freight north than we did south because the demand for northbound freight was less than the demand for southbound freight. Even if the miles were the same, we charged different rates. On the way to work, I was wondering what on earth this meant. Why look at the price differential on direction, when there are hundreds of price differentials on the same mileage in the same direction, because a railroad hauls different commodities/products at different prices, even over the same distance. Direction has nothing to do with it. There are simply another set of tariffs over the same mileage. Chicago to New Orelans has/had hundreds of tariffs at different rates for the same mileage. Does that change the statistical relationship between each tariff and the mileage? Not one bit. The "standard error" is a different statistical measure than correlation (r-squared). The strength of statisitical analysis is to be able to measure a relationship that may in fact have offsets up or down for a variety of reasons, but for which a specific factor is still the controlling factor in setting a rate. Greyhounds is discussing a situation which would affect the standard error (in large samples, the standard deviation), not the correlation. The standard error has nothing, or at least little, to do with determining whether or not the rates are set by reference to mileage, only whether or not such rate differentials exist -- which is a completely different measure than correlation. Over very large data sets, a correlation can be very strong, and still have a relatively large standard error, that is, a variety of different rates over the same distance, and a multiple of such distances, all of which ultimately are set by reference to mileage, will yield a statistical analysis that shows exactly that. Which is exactly what linear regression analysis is supposed to do. Best regards, Michael Sol
QUOTE: Originally posted by MichaelSol QUOTE: Originally posted by greyhounds Which regulated tariffs? If you're going to cite a tariff, then name the tariff. "A" tariff could tell you just about zilch. . A credible linear regression requires as many data points as possible. Which tariff? As many as possible. In this instance, a data set of Milwaukee revenue carloadings including, from actual waybills, distance (from origin and destination) and product. Statistically, that is the relevant data. For a linear regression to assess rate/mileage correlation, rate and mileage is extracted from the data set. A citation to a specific tariff is irrelevant at that point because the linear regression doesn't care: it wants actual, real data. We requested waybill data and that's what we got. Since the purpose of the study was not to determine if Milwaukee waybills matched published tariffs, nor any reason whatsoever to suspect they didn't, there was absolutely no reason whatsoever to be looking for individual tariff numbers in a compilation of thousands of waybills no doubt including hundreds of tariffs. At that point in time, it was a safe guess that all such rates were regulated and so there was no question that every single combination of price and distance was governed by a regulated rate. For current pricing on wheat carriage, BNSF Rate Book 4022K was used. Within that rate book are subsets of unregulated and regulated rates, corresponding neatly with competitive and captive shippers. Best regards, Michael Sol
QUOTE: Originally posted by greyhounds But you're trying to extend a waybill study of Milwaukee Road traffic to the rest of the rail network, and that's dubious. The Milwaukee was a basket case that went broke. Extending their pricing strategy to the rest of the world through assumption is quite a stretch.
QUOTE: Originally posted by greyhounds QUOTE: Originally posted by MichaelSol QUOTE: Originally posted by greyhounds I know we took mileage into consideration, but it was part of a mix and it didn't govern our decisions. And we charged less to move freight north than we did south because the demand for northbound freight was less than the demand for southbound freight. Even if the miles were the same, we charged different rates. On the way to work, I was wondering what on earth this meant. Why look at the price differential on direction, when there are hundreds of price differentials on the same mileage in the same direction, because a railroad hauls different commodities/products at different prices, even over the same distance. Direction has nothing to do with it. There are simply another set of tariffs over the same mileage. Chicago to New Orelans has/had hundreds of tariffs at different rates for the same mileage. Does that change the statistical relationship between each tariff and the mileage? Not one bit. The "standard error" is a different statistical measure than correlation (r-squared). The strength of statisitical analysis is to be able to measure a relationship that may in fact have offsets up or down for a variety of reasons, but for which a specific factor is still the controlling factor in setting a rate. Greyhounds is discussing a situation which would affect the standard error (in large samples, the standard deviation), not the correlation. The standard error has nothing, or at least little, to do with determining whether or not the rates are set by reference to mileage, only whether or not such rate differentials exist -- which is a completely different measure than correlation. Over very large data sets, a correlation can be very strong, and still have a relatively large standard error, that is, a variety of different rates over the same distance, and a multiple of such distances, all of which ultimately are set by reference to mileage, will yield a statistical analysis that shows exactly that. Which is exactly what linear regression analysis is supposed to do. Best regards, Michael Sol No, I'm not. I'm talking about the fact that the northbound FAK intermodal charges on the ICG, which I put in, were significantly below the corresponding southbound FAK intermodal charges.
QUOTE: Originally posted by MP173 Mileage may be the determining factor for a "rate", but the determining the final "cost" will almost always be based on demand and supply.
QUOTE: Originally posted by greyhounds The Milwaukee was a basket case that went broke. Extending their pricing strategy to the rest of the world through assumption is quite a stretch.
QUOTE: Originally posted by futuremodal Yep, just post something about railroad rate gouging, and the ilks will slither up from the cesspool of arrogant idiocy.
QUOTE: Originally posted by MP173 ...you just realize the necessity to adjust the throttle.
QUOTE: Originally posted by bobwilcox CSXT is raising pricessignificantly. The blurg from Train Orders is at http://www.trainorders.com/news/story.php?2900 BNSF, NS and UP should be following.
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