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Was there a law that said that American railroads had to be domestcally controlled?

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Posted by Juniata Man on Tuesday, July 13, 2021 11:51 AM

Canada at one time had a requirement that companies up there be controlled by a Canadian entity. That's one of the reasons GATX had GATX Rail Canada or UTLX had Procor. 

This requirement was, to my knowledge,  eliminated some time back although many companies retain the seperate corporate structure for internal purposes.

CW

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Posted by diningcar on Tuesday, July 13, 2021 11:04 AM

As I remember it Texas required all RR's in Texas to have a Texas identification in their corporate name; but they could be controlled elsewhere like Santa Fe located in Chicago controlled the North Texas and Santa Fe or the Gulf, Colorado and Santa Fe.

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Posted by tree68 on Tuesday, July 13, 2021 10:30 AM

Some states required railroads to be "located" in their state - Texas as a case in point.

LarryWhistling
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Posted by CSSHEGEWISCH on Tuesday, July 13, 2021 10:22 AM

They may be incorporated under the laws of one of the states but I would hardly consider them to be domestically owned.  It works in the other direction, too.  The BNSF line to Winnipeg was operated by a wholly-owned subsidiary incorporated under Canadian law.  

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Was there a law that said that American railroads had to be domestcally controlled?
Posted by ronrunner on Tuesday, July 13, 2021 10:16 AM

Hence Grand Trunk..DWP..D&H had to have US Charters and management on paper..as I also recall GT had a division in Maine

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