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[quote user="oltmannd"][quote user="futuremodal"] [quote user="Datafever"]And if that is the case, then the GM/Ford analogy would still hold, as I would presume that GM would charge Ford for the lost production capability.  Therefore, GM really loses nothing by investing in new production capabilities that can then be used by Ford.  In fact, GM should be able to actually make money on the deal if it charges Ford enough. [/quote] No, because autos are not homogenous.  GM cars are designed and built to confidential GM standards, Ford cars to Ford standards, etc.  If all cars were of one standard design, you could in theory support the notion of a private auto plant builder hosting the production needs of various automakers.  Since they're not, it's misplaced speculation. [/quote] Faulty analysis of the analogy.  The AUTOs aren't homogenous, but the assembly plants COULD BE, to a very large extent.  All that would be needed were some industry standard for the material handling machinery interfaces, etc.  The cars and their components would remain proprietary design. All analogies fall apart at the edges, but this one has a long way to go and actually demonstrates why control of the ROW is very important part of the total RR service product. [/quote] Totally out of reality there with your "autos could be" falacy.  Now you're just grasping at straws. Control of ROW isn't an important part of the "total RR service product" so much as it is the key role in diminishing railroad's ability to provide a total service product.  Isn't it odd to you that each Class I railroad is limited to specific geographic service areas, rather than having the whole nation as the service area? A trucking company can go nationwide, but a rail company can't.  And you call that efficient?
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