Edit post

Edit your reply below.

Post Body
Enter your post below.
When people say the mandates were needed to force the railroads to adopt automatic couplers and air brakes, that can mean one of two things.  In absence of a mandate, either the railroads would not move quickly enough to adopt these improvements—or—the railroads would have refused to begin the adoption of these improvements.  Which one of these two explanations is true? Was the application of Janney Couplers and air brakes voluntarily under way prior to the creation of the mandates for them?  If so, is it accurate to say that railroads would have fully applied these improvements over time on their own volition?  If so, is it accurate to say that the mandates were predicated on the belief that the conversion to automatic couplers and air brakes needed to be speeded up and completed sooner than it would have if no mandate were applied?
Tags (Optional)
Tags are keywords that get attached to your post. They are used to categorize your submission and make it easier to search for. To add tags to your post type a tag into the box below and click the "Add Tag" button.
Add Tag